Nope, I’ve said you need to know the speakers intent. So either you already know them or their intent otherwise you’re simply making a conclusion based largely on their sex and your perception.
To know them. No one is asking you to make bigoted assumptions, I’m specifically asking not to… That’s sorta my point. Once you gender something unnecessarily you’re by definition treading water is abject bigotry.
I mean, even if you think you know them, that’s still an assumption.
But let’s grant you that, because congratulations, you’ve answered your own question! That’s exactly how you can use the term “mansplaining” without being a bigot. By knowing that that’s what they are doing.
You’re catching on, so again how is this substantially different then screeching dei when inconvenienced by a minority? It’s not is it? It’s just bigotry.
Just to be sure I understand your question, you’re asking how a woman knowing they’re being mansplained to is different than someone screeching dei when inconvenienced by a minority?
You tell me! You were the one who asserted that the only way a woman can believe a man is being misogynistically condescending and not herself be a bigot is for her to “know” that he is.
I granted you that, but sure, if you want to dissect your own claims, let’s do it.
Tell me, how can a women know that a man is being misogynistically condescending to her?
Right, but you’ve also claimed it’s impossible to believe that’s happening without being a bigot.
Your logic concludes that any women who thinks a man is being misogynistically condescending to them is a bigot.
Nope, I’ve said you need to know the speakers intent. So either you already know them or their intent otherwise you’re simply making a conclusion based largely on their sex and your perception.
And how can you know that intent without being a mindreader?
To know them. No one is asking you to make bigoted assumptions, I’m specifically asking not to… That’s sorta my point. Once you gender something unnecessarily you’re by definition treading water is abject bigotry.
I mean, even if you think you know them, that’s still an assumption.
But let’s grant you that, because congratulations, you’ve answered your own question! That’s exactly how you can use the term “mansplaining” without being a bigot. By knowing that that’s what they are doing.
You’re catching on, so again how is this substantially different then screeching dei when inconvenienced by a minority? It’s not is it? It’s just bigotry.
Just to be sure I understand your question, you’re asking how a woman knowing they’re being mansplained to is different than someone screeching dei when inconvenienced by a minority?
That’s your real question?
How do they “know” anymore then the man “knows” you aren’t aware of whatever it is they’re explaining?
They don’t, they assume, it’s just a bigoted assumption.
You tell me! You were the one who asserted that the only way a woman can believe a man is being misogynistically condescending and not herself be a bigot is for her to “know” that he is.
I granted you that, but sure, if you want to dissect your own claims, let’s do it.
Tell me, how can a women know that a man is being misogynistically condescending to her?