edit: seems like some people interpret “full of” as a mathematical majority which, while it may or might not be true instance to instance, isn’t my intent in posting
feel free to swap in “has a lot of” if that’s more familiar language to you :)
edit: seems like some people interpret “full of” as a mathematical majority which, while it may or might not be true instance to instance, isn’t my intent in posting
feel free to swap in “has a lot of” if that’s more familiar language to you :)
That’s actually easy.
The shape of the district gets decided based on the concentration of votes for one party. The goal is to make enough districts with enough concentration of your voters that you always win those districts, and make the rest of the state have few enough districts with enough of a mix of of voters for both parties that A) the for-sure districts can’t be lost and B) the not-for-sure districts can never oppose the for-sure districts as long as they remain under your party’s control.
So all the rigging party needs to do is campaign enough in the for-sure districts that they can’t lose, and campaign enough in the not-for-sure districts that their opponent can’t win. And then because of the Electoral College, all of the states votes go to the rigged party.
??? But as the OP said that’s not how Presidential elections work. Gerrymandering does not affect presidential elections at all.
As he already said, it affects local elections like Congressional districts.
*with the exception of Nebraska and Maine, who use proportional allocation of electoral votes based on districts.
https://www.archives.gov/electoral-college/allocation
Not proportional. FPTP per district.
Indirect influence versus direct consequence